GATE SOLVED QUESTION PAPERS FOR MECHANICAL PDF
GATE Examination Solved Question Papers (Previous Years) GATE Papers with Answer Keys free download last 5 year Gate Solved Paper. Mechanical Engineering; Mining Engineering; Metallurgical Engineering pdf-download- icon. Get all set of GATE Mechanical question papers with solution. Download the list of GATE ME previous year question papers and answer key PDF of What is the use of these solved papers, when you are unable to solve. Mechanical Engineering Previous Years GATE Solved Question Papers Collection – PDF Free Download Mechanical Engineering Previous Years GATE .
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“where to find gate previous years question papers pdf? where to find Below article will solve this puzzle of yours. ME, Mechanical Engineering, Download. GATE previous year solved papers Mechanical are the optimal factors to have an idea about the question pattern. Go through our Ebook for previous year. [PDF] Mechanical Engineering GATE Previous Years Question Papers Fully Comprehensively Solved. GATE (Most Important) How to.
Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination. Declaration by the candidate: I have read and understood all the above instructions.
I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.
The aircraft take off as soon as its flight plan was filed. A is allowed to B will be allowed to C was allowed to D has been allowed to Q. All women are entrepreneurs.
Some women are doctors. Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above statements? Many ancient cultures attributed disease to supernatural causes. A impel B dispel C propel D repel Q. Who is the most consistent batsman of these four? Batsman Average Standard deviation K All people with incomes above Rs 10 lakh should fill up Form R, except non residents with income above Rs 15 lakhs, who should fill up Form S.
All others should fill Form T. An example of a person who should fill Form T is A a resident male with annual income Rs 9 lakh B a resident female with annual income Rs 9 lakh C a non-resident male with annual income Rs 16 lakh D a non-resident female with annual income Rs 16 lakh Q.
What is the length of the platform in metres? A B C D Q. You choose a coin at random and toss it, and it comes up heads. One end of the rod is fixed and other end is free. The itical dampin largest amo smallest am largest amo smallest am circular objec ocity V. II are false d II is true Q is 2 m lo direction of at this instant B gnifies the ra resistance in resistance in e to viscous f force to visco length and 50 n increase in atio of the ro ping for whic mping for whi ing for whic mping for whi r rolls witho the point of c ion of motion an example ample of low ong and orie f velocity V Q t is 1.
The 0. The free stream velocity is U. The pump has an isentropic efficiency of 0. A 0 1 and high value of is used for stable demand B 0 1 and high value of is used for unstable demand C 1 and high value of is used for stable demand D 0 and high value of is used for unstable demand 2 U. The trajectory of the cutter centre to machine the island PQRS is A 8, 8 , , 8 , ,58 , 8,58 , 8, 8 B 8,8 , 94,8 , 94,44 , 8,44 , 8,8 C 8,8 , 94,0 , 94,44 , 8,44 , 8,8 D 0,0 , ,0 , ,50 , 50,0 , 0,0 Q.
The turning was performed using 2 mm depth of cut and 0. If the d to move the 0. The ntervals, the MPa. The Block R is ction for all ks each. The frequency of vibration of the beam, with a 0. The flexural rigidity in N. The primary inertia forces of the slider are partially balanced by a revolving mass of 6 kg at the crank, placed at a distance equal to crank radius. Neglect the mass of connecting rod and crank. Ends A and B are supported by springs of spring constant k.
Both bearing bore diameter and length are 40 mm. If radial clearance is 20 m and bearing is lubricated with an oil having viscosity 0.
The temperature of the rod is uniformly raised by C. The viscosity of water at 25C is 0. The flow may be assumed to be a plane Couette flow with zero pressure gradient.
The dynamic viscosity of the lubricant is 0. The ratio of the specific heats and the specific gas constant R of air are 1.
K, respectively. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir at K. The net work output in kJ of the cycle is A 0. Use the following table for relevant data. The arrival of the jobs follows Poisson distribution.
The average service time of a job on the facility is 40 minutes. The service time follows exponential distribution. The feed given to the zero degree rake angle tool is 0. Shaft Type Q. IT8 II. Hole Type R. IT7 III. Hole Tolerance Grade S. Communication and interpersonal skills are important in their own ways. A each B both C all D either Q. A will get some rest B gets some rest C will be getting some rest D is getting some rest Q. A bear, loosing B bare, loosing C bear, losing D bare, losing Q.
If a very large number of throws show the following frequencies of occurrence: On every step of the ladder there are two lights. If one of the lights is red, the other light on that step will always be blue. If one of the lights on a step is green, the other light on that step will always be yellow.
Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct? A The number of red lights is equal to the number of blue lights B The number of green lights is equal to the number of yellow lights C The sum of the red and green lights is equal to the sum of the yellow and blue lights D The sum of the red and blue lights is equal to the sum of the green and yellow lights Q.
The average of four consecutive even numbers is What is the sum of the smallest odd number and second largest even number? The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item exported as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item.
The total quantity of exports of all the items is thousand tonnes and the total revenues are crore rupees. Which item among the following has generated the maximum revenue per kg? It is decided to simultaneously pump water into the half-full tank while draining it. What is the rate at which water has to be pumped in so that it gets fully filled in 10 minutes?
A 4 times the draining rate B 3 times the draining rate C 2. Two parts are being drawn simultaneously in a random manner from the box. The pressure hydrostatic stress developed within the cube, when it is subjected to a uniform increase in temperature, T, is given by A 0 B 1 2 T E. The suffixes 'f', 'in', 'co' and 'out' denote the fixed link, the input link, the coupler and output link respectively.
Which one of the following statements is true about the input and output links? A Both links can execute full circular motion B Both links cannot execute full circular motion C Only the output link cannot execute full circular motion D Only the input link cannot execute full circular motion Q. A T is nearly unity at small excitation frequencies B T can be always reduced by using higher damping at any excitation frequency C T is unity at the frequency ratio of 2 D T is infinity at resonance for undamped systems Q.
A Normal stress is zero in the z-direction B Normal stress is tensile in the z-direction C Normal stress is compressive in the z-direction D Normal stress varies in the z-direction Q. This heat exchanger is A a condenser B an evaporator C a counter flow heat exchanger D a parallel flow heat exchanger Q. The fixed cost and the variable cost for each of the processes are listed below. The most economical process for producing a batch of pieces is Process Fixed cost in Rs.
Variable cost per piece in Rs. Group A Group B P: Centre Lathe 1: Slotting Q: Milling 2: Counter-boring R: Grinding 3: Knurling S: Drilling 4: Defect in extrusion I: Defect in rolling II: Product of skew rolling III: Product of rolling through cluster mill IV: Other parts of the flywheel, such as spokes, etc, have negligible mass. The contact between the block and the inclined plane is frictionless.
The mass of the block is denoted by m and the spring constants are denoted by k 1 and k 2 as shown below. The maximum pressure which can be imposed on the friction material is 1.
The outer diameter of the clutch plate is mm and its internal diameter is mm. Assuming uniform wear theory for the clutch plate, the maximum torque in N. Value of static coefficient of friction between the crate and the truck surface is 0.
Assuming that the engine runs at an average speed of rpm, the polar mass moment of inertia in kg. From the standpoint of distortion energy von-Mises criterion, which one of the following statements is true? The pressure angle of the tooth of the pinion is K at ambient conditions of 15C and kPa. Stefan-Boltzmann constant is 5. The boundary temperatures of the slabs are indicated in the figure.
If the boundary layer thickness at a distance of 0. K at 1 bar and K is compressed to 8 bar. The maximum temperature in the cycle is limited to K. The enthalpy drop in the stage is kJ. The nozzle angle is The engine oil enters at C and flows in the annular flow passage. The exit temperature of the engine oil is 50C. Mass flow rate of water and the engine oil are 1. Assume specific heat of vapour at the time of discharge as 0. Other relevant properties are given below. Activity Normal duration days Predecessor Cost slope Rs.
G02 Q: G03 R: G04 S: The drilling is performed at rotational speed of rpm and feed rate of 0. The required approach and over run of the drill together is equal to the radius of drill. The drilling time in minute is A 1. The hole is made by punching process. Which one of the following facts best supports the claim made in the above sentence?
A India is a union of 28 states and 7 union territories. B India has a population of over 1. C India is home to 22 official languages and thousands of dialects. D The Indian cricket team draws players from over ten states. A depressed B depreciated C appreciated D stabilized Q. A a verb B a noun C an adjective D both a verb and a noun Q.
The correct conclusions from this information are: If it takes him thrice as long to row upstream, as to row downstream, then find the stream velocity in km per hour. The expenditure on labour in is Rs. If the company registered a profit of Rs. The batch is rejected if even one of the bulbs is defective.
A batch typically has five defective bulbs. It is subjected to a point load at the center. The maximum bending stress developed is MPa. The maximum shear stresses developed in the two shafts are 1 and 2. After the collision, both the masses travel together with the same velocity.
The coefficient of restitution is A 0. A Intermediate principal stress is ignored when applying the maximum principal stress theory B The maximum shear stress theory gives the most accurate results amongst all the failure theories C As per the maximum strain energy theory, failure occurs when the strain energy per unit volume exceeds a critical value D As per the maximum distortion energy theory, failure occurs when the distortion energy per unit volume exceeds a critical value Q.
Gear 3 and Gear 4 are mounted on the same shaft. Gear 5 engages with Gear 4. The numbers of teeth on Gears 2, 3, 4 and 5 are 20, 40, 15 and 30, respectively.
The angular speed of Gear 5 is A rpm counterclockwise B rpm clockwise C rpm counterclockwise D rpm clockwise Q. Assuming one-dimensional steady state heat conduction in the radial direction, the thermal resistance in the wall of the tube is A. Identify the correct pair of statements. The fluid is well-mixed II. The fluid is unmixed III. Smaller in size compared to steam power plant for same power output Q.
Starts quickly compared to steam power plant R. Works on the principle of Rankine cycle S. The temperature of environment is 27C. The feed is 0. The tool has a side cutting edge angle of Hot tears 1: Improper fusion of two streams of liquid metal Q: Shrinkage 2: Low permeability of the sand mould R: Blow holes 3: Volumetric contraction both in liquid and solid stage S: Cold Shut 4: Choose the correct option referring to both figure and table.
Point on the graph Description of the point P 1. Upper Yield Point Q 2. Ultimate Tensile Strength R 3. Proportionality Limit S 4. Elastic Limit T 5. Lower Yield Point U 6. The drum is rotating in anticlockwise direction. The coefficient of friction between drum and shoe is 0.
The dimensions shown in the figure are in mm. The braking torque in N. The coefficient of dynamic friction between the body and the plane is 0. The beam carries a vertical point load, P, at its mid-point. The ratio of the maximum shear stress to the maximum bending stress in the beam is A 0. The disc rolls on a flat surface without slipping. If the velocity of the center of mass is v, the kinetic energy of the disc is A 2 16 9 mv B 2 16 11 mv C 2 16 13 mv D 2 16 15 mv Q.
What would be the value of x so that the displacement at A is equal to zero? The wheels are identical, each with a radius of 0. Then a constant braking torque is applied to all the wheels and the vehicle experiences a uniform deceleration. For the vehicle to stop in 10 s, the braking torque in N.
At the steady state, the vibration amplitude of the mass is 40 mm. The damping coefficient c, in N. The ratio of the final volume to the initial volume of the ideal gas is A 0. One side of the wall is maintained at C and the other side at 27C. Assume that the level of water is maintained constant.
Ignore frictional effect due to viscosity and losses at entry and exit. Both the sections of the wall have equal thickness l. The conductivity of one section is k and that of the other is 2k. The left face of the wall is at K and the right face is at K.
The relative velocity and the axial component of velocity remain the same between the inlet and outlet of the blades. The blade inlet and outlet velocity triangles are shown in the figure.
The free f 2, 13 manufacturer arings per da tup cost per oduction run 4. The run is Rs. Sh density is atio of 17 a 1. Assuming C d and height e figure. The manu lding a beari g worki 6. Tube side ng at 46C. The the stroke. Reduction in friction angle increases cutting force Q.
Reduction in friction angle decreases cutting force R. Reduction in friction angle increases chip thickness S. The heat dissipated to the base metal is J. Assuming that the heat required for melting 1 mm 3 volume of steel is 20 J and interfacial contact resistance between sheets is 0.
In a democracy, everybody has the freedom to disagree with the government. A dissent B descent C decent D decadent Q.
GATE Solved Question Papers for Mechanical Engineering [ME] by AglaSem.Com
A retract B get back to him C move in reverse D retreat Q. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word vindicated? A punished B substantiated C appreciated D chastened Q. What is the sum of the last 5 numbers in the sequence? Find the annual rate of increase in percent assuming it to be uniform over the years. What is the sum of all such possible five digit numbers?
What is the percentage increase in total cost for the company in ? The percentage of savings account holders, who maintain an average daily balance more than Rs. The catalogue rating of a particular bearing is 16 kN. The ambient air temperature is 35C.
The heat gained by the refrigerator at a continuous rate is 2. Biot number 1: Ratio of buoyancy to viscous force Q: Grashof number 2: Ratio of inertia force to viscous force R: Prandtl number 3: Ratio of momentum to thermal diffusivities S: Reynolds number 4: Demand 50 70 75 80 85 Probability 0. The depth of cut in operation 2 is twice that in operation 1. The other cutting parameters are identical. Tempering I: Strengthening and grain refinement Q: Quenching II: Inducing toughness R: Annealing III: Hardening S: Normalizing IV: Strain Q: Strength of the work material R: Roll diameter S: Roll velocity T: The probability of occurrence of less than 2 accidents in the plant during a randomly selected month is A 0.
The maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is MPa. The yield and ultimate strengths of the shaft material in tension are MPa and MPa, respectively. The maximum permissible working stress is restricted to MPa. The force in kN in the member QS is A With increase in pinion to gear speed ratio, the minimum number of teeth on the pinion A increases B decreases C first increases and then decreases D remains unchanged Q. Cross sectional area of the threaded portion of the bolt is The length of the threaded portion in grip is 30 mm, while the length of the unthreaded portion in grip is 8 mm.
Young's modulus of material is GPa. The frame has a constant flexural rigidity EI. The effect of axial load is neglected. A force P is applied at mid-height on the wardrobe so as to tip it about point Q without slipping. What are the minimum values of the force in newton and the static coefficient of friction between the floor and the wardrobe, respectively? A The moment of inertia in kg.
The dynamic magnification factor at an excitation frequency of 1. Heat addition required to convert the entire liquid into saturated vapour at a constant pressure is If the entropy of the saturated liquid is 0. K , each having a mass of 5 kg, are initially at K. A reversible refrigerator extracts heat from block L and rejects heat to block M until the temperature of block L reaches K. The remaining 8. An infinite radiation shield is inserted between the plates without touching any of them to reduce heat exchange between the plates.
Assume that the emissivities of plates and radiation shield are equal. The expansion ratio is 8. Assuming ratio of specific heats as 1. The total float in days of activities e and f , respectively, are Activity Predecessors Duration days a - 2 b - 4 c a 2 d b 3 e c 2 f c 4 g d, e 5 A 0 and 4 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 1 Q.
[PDF] Mechanical Engineering GATE Previous Years Question Papers Collections With Key (Solutions)
Number of cutting strokes per minute is Using specific energy for cutting as 1. The thickness of the plates is 8 mm and width is 20 mm. Improper selection of welding parameters caused an undercut of 3 mm depth along the weld. Three Hours Maximum Marks: Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
If you find that either a. On the right hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, i darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and ii write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.
This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
There are a total of 65 questions carrying marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer.
More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. Questions Q. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair.
If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the Question Booklet for rough work. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ballpoint pen.
B complex with non-zero negative imaginary part. C real. D pure imaginary. First Q. Trapezoidal Rule 2. Second R. Candidates have to enter the answer which will be a real number, signed or unsigned, e. An appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.
Part A is common for all candidates. Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each sub-total 25 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions. Each section in Part B Section 1 and Section 2 consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions. This section contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each sub- total 7 marks , and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each sub-total 8 marks.
Some questions may be of numerical answer type questions. Each of the other sections of the XE paper Sections B through G contains 22 questions carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each sub-total 9 marks and 13 questions carrying 2 marks each sub-total 26 marks. Some questions may be of numerical answer type.
This section contains 15 questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each sub-total 5 marks and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each sub-total 20 marks.
Each of the other sections of the XL paper Sections I through M contains 20 questions carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each sub-total 10 marks and 10 questions carrying 2 marks each sub-total 20 marks. Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative marking. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical answer type questions. Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning and data interpretation.
Calculus: Functions of single variable, Limit, continuity and differentiability, Mean value theorems, Evaluation of definite and improper integrals, Partial derivatives, Total derivative, Maxima and minima, Gradient, Divergence and Curl, Vector identities, Directional derivatives, Line, Surface and Volume integrals, Stokes, Gauss and Greens theorems. Differential equations: First order equations linear and nonlinear , Higher order linear differential equations with constant coefficients, Cauchys and Eulers equations, Initial and boundary value problems, Laplace transforms, Solutions of one dimensional heat and wave equations and Laplace equation.
Complex variables: Analytic functions, Cauchys integral theorem, Taylor and Laurent series. Probability and Statistics: Definitions of probability and sampling theorems, Conditional probability, Mean, median, mode and standard deviation, Random variables, Poisson,Normal and Binomial distributions. Numerical Methods: Numerical solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations Integration by trapezoidal and Simpsons rule, single and multi-step methods for differential equations.
Strength of Materials: Stress and strain, stress-strain relationship and elastic constants, Mohrs circle for plane stress and plane strain, thin cylinders; shear force and bending moment diagrams; bending and shear stresses; deflection of beams; torsion of circular shafts; Eulers theory of columns; strain energy methods; thermal stresses. Theory of Machines: Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane mechanisms; dynamic analysis of slider-crank mechanism; gear trains; flywheels.
Vibrations: Free and forced vibration of single degree of freedom systems; effect of damping; vibration isolation; resonance, critical speeds of shafts.
Design: Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue strength and the S- N diagram;principles of the design of machine elements such as bolted, riveted and welded joints, shafts, spur gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings, brakes and clutches.
Heat-Transfer: Modes of heat transfer; one dimensional heat conduction, resistance concept, electrical analogy, unsteady heat conduction, fins; dimensionless parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, various correlations for heat transfer in flow over flat plates and through pipes; thermal boundary layer; effect of turbulence; radiative heat transfer, black and grey surfaces, shape factors, network analysis; heat exchanger performance, LMTD and NTU methods.
Engines: air-standard Otto, Diesel cycles. Refrigeration and air-conditioning: Vapour refrigeration cycle, heat pumps, gas refrigeration, Reverse Brayton cycle; moist air: psychrometric chart, basic psychrometric processes.Fluid Mechanics. This App provides you perfect experience of the official online calculator to solve Andrew Marsh.
The turning was performed using 2 mm depth of cut and 0. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. Thank you.